Wastewater Treatment Overview
Process Fundamentals

Wastewater Treatment Overview

135 questions · ~12 minutes · instant grading with full explanations

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Process Fundamentals · 135 questions · ~12 min
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  1. 01

    The correct order of major treatment stages in a conventional activated-sludge plant is:

  2. 02

    Bar screening is part of which stage?

  3. 03

    Grit is removed at the:

  4. 04

    The final treatment step before discharge to receiving water is usually:

  5. 05

    The main purpose of preliminary treatment is to:

  6. 06

    Return activated sludge (RAS) is returned from the secondary clarifier to the:

  7. 07

    Waste activated sludge (WAS) is normally routed to:

  8. 08

    An 'influent' is best described as:

  9. 09

    In a conventional plant, where does effluent filtration (tertiary) usually fit?

  10. 10

    Anaerobic digestion belongs to which side of the plant?

  11. 11

    Which unit directly precedes the aeration tank in a conventional activated-sludge plant?

  12. 12

    Scum and grease are skimmed from the surface of the:

  13. 13

    Which is NOT a physical/chemical treatment step?

  14. 14

    The headworks is best described as the plant's:

  15. 15

    BOD stands for which of the following and what defines the standard test?

  16. 16

    The BOD5 test is incubated under which conditions?

  17. 17

    Ultimate BOD (BODu) compared to BOD5 is:

  18. 18

    Carbonaceous BOD (CBOD) differs from total BOD because the CBOD bottle contains:

  19. 19

    A BOD5 result is generally considered valid only when:

  20. 20

    High influent BOD most directly indicates:

  21. 21

    BOD5 is reported in which units?

  22. 22

    Why is 'seed' sometimes added to BOD bottles?

  23. 23

    A toxic influent that kills the BOD seed would most likely cause:

  24. 24

    Compared to the BOD test, the COD test is:

  25. 25

    For a given sample, COD is generally:

  26. 26

    A high COD-to-BOD ratio in an influent typically signals:

  27. 27

    A typical COD/BOD ratio for municipal wastewater is roughly:

  28. 28

    Which test does NOT rely on a microbial population?

  29. 29

    TOD (Total Oxygen Demand) measures:

  30. 30

    TSS is the abbreviation for:

  31. 31

    TSS is analyzed using which filter?

  32. 32

    Volatile suspended solids (VSS) approximates the:

  33. 33

    Fixed (non-volatile) suspended solids are mostly:

  34. 34

    Total Solids (TS) equal which combination?

  35. 35

    Settleable solids are most often reported in which units?

  36. 36

    TDS measures the solids that:

  37. 37

    In mixed liquor, the ratio MLVSS / MLSS is typically about:

  38. 38

    Turbidity is most commonly measured in:

  39. 39

    On the pH scale, a neutral solution at 25 °C reads approximately:

  40. 40

    A solution with pH 5 is:

  41. 41

    A solution with pH 9 is:

  42. 42

    The pH scale commonly runs from:

  43. 43

    Moving from pH 7 to pH 5 means the hydrogen-ion concentration changes by a factor of:

  44. 44

    Alkalinity in wastewater is best described as the water's:

  45. 45

    The dominant form of alkalinity in typical domestic wastewater is:

  46. 46

    Nitrification affects alkalinity by:

  47. 47

    Typical target dissolved oxygen in an aeration tank is about:

  48. 48

    Dissolved oxygen is most commonly measured with:

  49. 49

    Persistently low DO in an aeration tank most commonly promotes:

  50. 50

    Biological treatment is generally inhibited when pH falls outside approximately:

  51. 51

    Alkalinity is valuable in the aeration tank because it:

  52. 52

    Most NPDES effluent permits restrict pH to a range of about:

  53. 53

    Nitrification in an activated-sludge plant slows markedly below about:

  54. 54

    A rough rule is that biological reaction rate changes by roughly a factor of ~2 for every:

  55. 55

    A standard mesophilic anaerobic digester is held near:

  56. 56

    As water temperature rises, the saturation concentration of dissolved oxygen:

  57. 57

    Cold influent conditions most directly require operators to:

  58. 58

    Which stage physically settles suspended solids and removes a portion of BOD before any biological step?

  59. 59

    Primary treatment most effectively removes which pair?

  60. 60

    Primary clarifiers do NOT significantly remove:

  61. 61

    Typical primary clarifier detention time is about:

  62. 62

    Primary sludge is most commonly pumped to:

  63. 63

    Floatables (FOG and scum) are removed from primary clarifiers by:

  64. 64

    Compared with no primary treatment, adding primary settling mainly:

  65. 65

    The primary purpose of secondary (biological) treatment is to remove:

  66. 66

    Which process is a common form of secondary treatment?

  67. 67

    In secondary treatment, microbes convert dissolved organics mainly into:

  68. 68

    The secondary clarifier's main job is to:

  69. 69

    Nitrification occurs in the secondary system and converts:

  70. 70

    Typical overall BOD removal for a conventional primary + activated-sludge plant is about:

  71. 71

    Extended-aeration activated sludge generally operates in which growth phase?

  72. 72

    Which is NOT a secondary (biological) process?

  73. 73

    Tertiary treatment is best described as:

  74. 74

    Effluent filtration (a tertiary step) primarily removes:

  75. 75

    Chemical phosphorus removal is usually accomplished by adding:

  76. 76

    Enhanced biological phosphorus removal (EBPR) relies on:

  77. 77

    UV disinfection inactivates pathogens mainly by:

  78. 78

    Chlorinated effluent is typically dechlorinated before discharge using:

  79. 79

    Disinfection CT is best described as:

  80. 80

    Which is NOT a common disinfection method?

  81. 81

    Membrane bioreactors (MBR) combine which two functions?

  82. 82

    The main purpose of sludge thickening is to:

  83. 83

    Sludge stabilization is most commonly achieved by:

  84. 84

    Common mechanical dewatering devices include:

  85. 85

    A dewatered sludge 'cake' is typically about:

  86. 86

    Final biosolids destinations include all EXCEPT:

  87. 87

    Class A vs Class B biosolids differ mainly in:

  88. 88

    A grab sample is best defined as:

  89. 89

    A 24-hour composite sample is typically built from:

  90. 90

    Which parameter is BEST measured by a grab sample analyzed immediately?

  91. 91

    BOD and TSS compliance samples are usually taken as:

  92. 92

    Nutrient samples (ammonia, nitrate, phosphorus) are commonly preserved by:

  93. 93

    A chain-of-custody form primarily documents:

  94. 94

    Every analytical parameter has:

  95. 95

    NPDES is best defined as:

  96. 96

    On monthly reports, DMR stands for:

  97. 97

    An SSO is most commonly a:

  98. 98

    Conventional municipal NPDES permits commonly limit all EXCEPT:

  99. 99

    Typical effluent pH range in an NPDES permit is approximately:

  100. 100

    Monitoring data on the DMR is most often reported:

  101. 101

    An MS4 permit governs:

  102. 102

    Hydrogen sulfide becomes immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) at about:

  103. 103

    Acceptable oxygen for confined-space entry is approximately:

  104. 104

    A permit-required confined space entry requires:

  105. 105

    LOTO is best described as:

  106. 106

    For an IDLH atmosphere (e.g., H₂S, low O₂), required respiratory protection is:

  107. 107

    The most frequent cause of injury at wastewater plants is:

  108. 108

    COD stands for:

  109. 109

    TDS stands for:

  110. 110

    MLSS stands for:

  111. 111

    RAS stands for:

  112. 112

    WAS stands for:

  113. 113

    SVI stands for:

  114. 114

    F/M stands for:

  115. 115

    MCRT (SRT) stands for:

  116. 116

    HRT stands for:

  117. 117

    SCADA stands for:

  118. 118

    ORP stands for:

  119. 119

    BNR stands for:

  120. 120

    EBPR stands for:

  121. 121

    MBR stands for:

  122. 122

    RBC stands for:

  123. 123

    SBR stands for:

  124. 124

    UVT in UV disinfection refers to:

  125. 125

    NTU is the unit for:

  126. 126

    SCADA is most valuable to an operator for:

  127. 127

    Which conversion factor converts concentration (mg/L) × flow (MGD) into pounds per day?

  128. 128

    How many gallons are in one cubic foot of water?

  129. 129

    One cubic foot of water weighs about:

  130. 130

    One gallon of water weighs about:

  131. 131

    Which value is closest to π used for quick plant calculations?

  132. 132

    The standard formula relating flow, area, and velocity is:

  133. 133

    A parameter that indicates septicity (anaerobic conditions) in a sample is:

  134. 134

    Which measurement best reflects how 'clear' a final effluent is?

  135. 135

    An operator's first responsibility under all operating decisions is:

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